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Stack Exchange network consists of 177 Q&A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers Visit Stack ExchangeThen there exists some in (,) such that ′ = () The mean value theorem is a generalization of Rolle's theorem, which assumes () = (), so that the righthand side above is zero The mean value theorem is still valid in a slightly more general setting1 ObsessiveMathsFreak said This appears to be the definition of the sum of two functions It is valid as long as f and g have the same domains and ranges They don't need the same range Try sin (x) x Share Share

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